The Dirichlet test provides a method to determine the convergence of improper integrals of type 1, particularly for products of functions. It is especially useful when one function has unbounded but uniformly bounded integrals, and the other is monotone decreasing to zero.
Conditions for the Dirichlet Test
Consider two functions f and g defined on [a, ∞) → R, such that:
- f is integrable on every interval [a, B] for B > a.
- The integrals of f are uniformly bounded: there exists a constant C > 0 such that |∫ₐᴮ f(x) dx| ≤ C for all B > a. This bound C is independent of B.
- g is monotone (either monotonically increasing or decreasing) and bounded.
- lim_{x→∞} g(x) = 0.
If these conditions are satisfied, then the integral ∫ₐ^∞ f(x)g(x) dx converges.
Application Examples
Example 1: ∫₁^∞ (sin x / x^p) dx for p > 0
- Let f(x) = sin x and g(x) = 1 / x^p.
- g(x) is monotonically decreasing to 0 as x → ∞ for p > 0.
- The integral of f is uniformly bounded: |∫₁ᴮ sin x dx| = |cos 1 - cos B| ≤ 2.
- Therefore, by the Dirichlet test, ∫₁^∞ (sin x / x^p) dx converges for all p > 0.
Example 2: ∫₀^∞ (sin x / x) · e^{-ax} dx for a > 0
Here a is a positive constant. The integral is split at x = 1 for analysis:
- ∫₀¹ (sin x / x) e^{-ax} dx: This is a proper integral because the integrand has no singularity at x = 0 (lim_{x→0} sin x / x = 1). It converges.
- ∫₁^∞ (sin x / x) e^{-ax} dx: Apply the Dirichlet test.
- Let f(x) = sin x / x. Its integral is uniformly bounded: |∫₁ᴮ (sin x / x) dx| ≤ |∫₁ᴮ sin x dx| = |cos 1 - cos B| ≤ 2.
- Let g(x) = e^{-ax}, which is monotone and lim_{x→∞} e^{-ax} = 0.
- Therefore, ∫₁^∞ (sin x / x) e^{-ax} dx converges.
- Since both integrals converge, the original integral converges. For a deeper understanding of this technique, see Using the Residue Theorem to Evaluate Improper Integrals.
Absolute vs. Conditional Convergence
An integral ∫_a^∞ f(x) dx is said to:
- Converge absolutely if ∫_a^∞ |f(x)| dx converges.
- Converge conditionally if ∫_a^∞ f(x) dx converges, but ∫_a^∞ |f(x)| dx diverges.
A key fact is that absolute convergence implies convergence, but the converse is not true.
Example: ∫₀^∞ (sin x / x) dx
-
Convergence: The integral converges (e.g., by the Dirichlet test as in Example 1 with p = 1).
-
Non-absolute convergence: To show ∫₀^∞ |sin x / x| dx diverges, break it into intervals of length π:
∫₀^∞ (|sin x| / x) dx = Σ_{n=0}^∞ ∫_{nπ}^{(n+1)π} (|sin x| / x) dx
Substituting x = nπ + y gives:
= Σ_{n=0}^∞ ∫₀^π (sin y / (nπ + y)) dy
Since y ≤ π, nπ + y ≤ nπ + π = (n+1)π. Therefore, 1/(nπ + y) ≥ 1/((n+1)π). This gives the lower bound:
≥ Σ_{n=0}^∞ (1 / ((n+1)π)) ∫₀^π sin y dy
= (1/π) Σ_{n=0}^∞ (1 / (n+1)) · 2
= (2/π) Σ_{n=1}^∞ (1/n) = ∞
Since the harmonic series diverges, the integral of |sin x / x| diverges. Hence, ∫₀^∞ (sin x / x) dx is conditionally convergent. This type of integral can also be approached using Computing Improper Fourier Integrals Using Complex Analysis Techniques.
Handling Integrals with Lower Limit -∞
Improper integrals of the form ∫{-∞}^a f(x) dx can be transformed into the standard form by a substitution like x = -t. This yields ∫{-∞}^a f(x) dx = -∫_{-a}^∞ f(-t) dt, which can be analyzed using the same tests. When working with such transformations, the Understanding Cauchy’s Theorem and Complex Integrals Explained can provide additional foundational insight.
[Music] so welcome to the lectures on engineering mathematics one and this is
lecture number 23 we are talking about the integral calculus in particular improper integrals so we will continue
the discussion on the convergence of type one integrals now we have one more test which was not discussed in the
previous lecture that is called the distillate test and this is again a very important test for testing the
convergence of improper integrals of type one so here we suppose that this F and G these are the two functions
defined from this a to infinity and they are taking the real value and they are such that that F is integrable on each
interval so a B and B can take any value greater than a so this f is integrable on each integral A to B and the other
one the integral A to B this FX this is the second condition these integrals are uniformly bounded so integrals means
that this B can take any value so we are not restricting on B so these integrals here are uniformly bounded what does
that mean that there exist number C here the constant C greater than 0 such that the value of this integral the absolute
value of this integral a to b fxdx is less than equal to that constant and for all B greater than a naturally be some
finite number we are talking about so here for any value B here which is greater than a if this integral is
bounded by a constant C it is the C is not depending on the number B here so in that case we call that this is uniformly
bounded so this bound is independent of this B then we call that this integral is uniformly these integrals are
uniformly bounded so these are the two conditions on F F is integrable and this is uniform these are these integrals are
uniformly bounded and the function G is monotone and bounded so again that either monotonically increasing or
monotonically decreasing and they bounded so the values of dysfunctions are also finitely bounded and then we
have this limit as X approaches to infinity this GX is zero so this is a G as a monotonic function which is
approaching to zero as X approaching to infinity so that is another condition and in that case this improper integral
e a to infinity FX GX DX so we have now the product here in the integrand FX GX and this converges that's a result so we
will not go through the proof of this result so what is important here the important is to check that these
integrals here they are uniformly bounded so meaning we have to compute this integral and see whether we can
bound that integral by some constant C which is independent of this number be here for any finite number B if we can
do that so we have this condition uniformly boundedness and the second one then G is monotone and so monotonically
it is going to 0 as X approaching to infinity so in that case so these are the two main conditions here and that
those conditions we have that this integral the product here converges so this is a very useful integral because
if we know that one of them so for example G is here this bounded and monotone going to 0 here and then these
integral over F converges so then we can conclude about this product as well that what will happen to this integral and it
will converge if these conditions are satisfied so here let's go through this example where we can use this result
easily to prove such integrals 1 to infinity sine x over X power P is convergent for P greater than equal to 0
so for any P here greater than 0 this integral 1 to infinity sine x over X power P is convergent we will show with
the help of this de rich let test so in this case we let that FX is equal to sine X so we have this function
here FX s sine X and the other one GX we will take 1 over X power P so how this is useful now because we know about this
G that this is monotonically decreasing to zero as X approaches to infinity for this P+ and this integral of the sine X
which we can easily show that one to be the sine X DX so this integral will be there - this cos x and then we have this
limit A to B so which will be this cos one minus the COS be this integral value and then the absolute value of this we
have to consider so this course is bounded by one always and we can use this inequality here that this is less
than cos one plus cos B and in that case this will be bounded by two so we can easily show that this integral here is
is bounded by by two for any value of B we take which is greater than 1 less than infinity so what we have seen that
there is a uniform bound here so whatever values of B we take the value of this integral will be bounded by two
and this is what we we want for uniform boundedness of this integral now the other function G which is a
monotonically decreasing function and naturally this tends to 0 as X tends to infinity for any value of P positive so
using that there is less test now so we can talk about this product the integral of this product sine X and product with
1 over X power P that means this integral sine x over X power P DX from 1 to infinity this converges for any value
of P greater than 0 so this distance test is very useful now that we have just considered as a ratio of the two
function again so one was FX and another GX and this function FX had this nice property about this uniform
integrability and the second one was monotonically decreasing to zero therefore we could conclude with that
the wristlet test that this converges another half similar kind we can test the convergence of this zero to infinity
sine x over X power minus X this integral here so for any value of this a positive so what we will do we can prove
this again easily so this is e power minus x cos x alright so this was the first problem if power so sine x over X
E power minus X so we have already done before that was sine x over X power P when 1 to infinity and now we will do
with sine x over X multiplied by E power minus X so in this case we will again this use the idea that we can break this
easily 0 to 1 and then we have sine x over X E power minus X DX Plus this 1 to infinity and we have sine x over this X
and E power minus X DX this function so the first integral is a proper integral can proper integral the reason is clear
because the sine x over X has the value 1 as X approaches to infinity and this is 1 so the limit here of the integrand
exists when X approaches to 0 and at all other point there is no no singularities there is no unboundedness so this is a
proper integral the first one the second one now because of this X infinity we have to test that what type of result we
get from here so now we take this integral here a to be so note that the integral 1 and then above 1 we can take
this B is sine x over X DX so if we take this integral here sine x over X DX a 1 this X is going from 1 to any number
this B so here the X we can replace because this is the minimum value if we replace this one so that the integral
will be the larger one so we have 1/2 B and this X is replaced by one the lowest possible values so that the integrand is
the larger one so we have this integral bigger than this one as sine X DX and this we know now that we can integrate
this with minus cos x and then 1/2 B so this value will be cos 1 and minus D cos B and we can take that absolute value
there so this absolute value of these functions will be again the absolute value here which is bounded by 2 so we
can prove that that this integral here sine x over X the sine x over x want to be for any value of b greater than 1 any
finite value this is uniformly bounded and this value is 2 so this is uniformly this integral is uniformly bounded by 2
and this exponential minus X function so exponential minus X function is is monotone and it approaches 2 to 0 if we
take the limit as X approaches to infinity this e power minus x that approaches to 0 so we have that property
also satisfied so then we can use this directly test there because the 1 integral with the sine x over X we have
seen that that is monitor that is a uniformly bounded and the other one here the GX which is e power minus X it is a
it is going to 0 as X approaches to infinity so in this case we can apply now the dirichlet results do reach let's
test which says that this integral converges so this integral converges and the other one is proper integral so
we have the original integral here zero to infinity sine x over X that converges well so we do one more problem here that
is problem number two so here we will it's a similar kind of problem we have 1 minus e power minus x cos x over X
square in this case and the idea again we can break into two parts so I will take your a to infinity and then this we
have 1 over X square cos X as one integral so we have cos x over X square DX and the other one is a to infinity
and we have E power minus X and then cos x over X is Square D X so this first integral this is converges absolutely
this converges converges absolutely and the reason is clear because by the comparison test we can easily conclude
because this cos x over over x square this is less than this 1 over X square indeed this absolutely concept we will
we will explain again so here the absolute only means that the if we take even the absolute value of the integrand
this is this converges so this cos x over X square is bound is less than equal to 1 over X square because it's
cos x the values are bounded by 1 so we have 1 over X square and we know this integral as a to infinity 1 over X
square that converges and in that case this integral will also converge because this is dominating function 1 over X
square and the whose integral converges so naturally that integral will converge the second one here we can again use the
same argument because again this e power minus x cos x over this x square so this value
here we'll be bounded by by one because II power this is minus X is also decreasing function so it will take the
highest value when we have then X will approach to this a so in any case this will be also bounded by one so this
second integrand is also bounded by 1 over X square and by the comparison test we can again conclude that this also
converges absolutely we can also use here the drizzler test because we can take this e power minus x so if you want
to use this distillate test here we can take this function e power minus x over x square and this function approaches 2
to 0 as x approaches to infinity as X approaches to infinity this is monotone function e power minus x is decreasing
in 1 over X square is also decreasing so both the functions so here we have the decreasing function for whatever values
of x and this cos x the integral of this a to infinity cos x we can again show that this is bounded by two so we can
use that drusilla test like we have done in the earlier problem so this is similar to the problem number one so we
can here also show that this converges so this also converges and the given integral they are 1 minus e power minus
x cos x over x square DX converges so now just note here that this integral of this type minus infinity to please FX DX
we are not you normally discussing here we are just discussing the integrals where we have infinity in place of this
v so this a to infinity type of integrals we are discussing but this also we can easily deal because we can
substitute for example here x is equal to minus t and then what will happen that this integral will be just minus p
to infinity so again we have a similar type integral which we are discussing for the convergence where the infinity
appears above so if we have this type of integrals we can just by simple substitution we can convert
into this type of integral and then discuss the convergence the way we have discussed earlier so this is the point
here we were talking about the absolute convergence another important factor here that what is the absolute
convergence so as I said before the absolute convergence means that this integral converges absolutely meaning
that if with the absolute value over the integrand if this converges so if this integral converges we call that this
integral converges absolutely because we have taken the positive values of this integrand for the range here zero to
infinity so if this converges then we call that this integral converges absolutely and there is a one more term
which is used here that this integral converges conditionally meaning that this integral converges but it does not
converge absolutely so here meaning is that this converges but not absolutely in that case we call
usually that this integral converges conditionally so here like coming to this example here 1 to infinity sine x
over X power P DX and we can show now that this integral converges absolutely for P greater than 1 for any value of P
greater than 1 this integral converges absolutely the idea is clear which was also mentioned in previous example a bit
so here we have this in T if we take the absolute value of this integrand that means the sine X and X power P so here X
are taking positive values and P is greater than now 1 so here we have this sine X absolute value over X power P
because this is positive so we don't have to use the absolute value here and this is bounded by 1 over X power P
because the sine X will never take value greater than 1 so we can bound this by 1 over X power P and we know now by the
comparison that the integral 1 to infinity 1 over X power P this integral converges so what
we have shown here that this integral also converges because this we have by the comparison test here so we have
taken the integrand here that the the sine x over X power P which was less than equal to 1 over X power P and we
have we know the result that this converges the integral of 1 over X power P 1 to infinity this converges and
therefore by the comparison test we have shown that this converges meaning that this integral in other words converges
absolutely yeah so we can take and see that because at person this is taking positive negative values in the range so
if we take indeed all the positive values in that case also this integral converges but this is important that we
have shown here for P greater than 1 that this integral converges absolutely when P is greater than 1 we will see
later on that when P is equal to 1 this integral does not converge absolutely indeed it converges but not absolutely
so going to the next problem so this is there is a result also that this is such integral converges if this converges
meaning with the absolute value because this is going to be a larger value than this value of the integral so if this
converges naturally this converges because here we have positive negative and many this cancellation will come and
this value will be less than the value here with while taking the absolute value of the integral so this converges
if this converges but the converse is not true meaning that so this will converge if this converges but if this
converges this may not converge yeah so if the integral converges the integral may not converge absolutely and that's
the way standard exam which you will discuss now here that 0 to infinity the sine x over X DX this
integral converges conditionally meaning that this integral converges but when we take the absolute value here over the
integrand then this integral does not converge so first we will show that this integral converges which is a trivial
task now so 0 to infinity sine x over DX we have written as the sum of these two integral 0 to 1 sine x over X DX and 1
to infinity sine x over X DX and note that the first integral is is a proper integral so naturally it converges and
the second one we have this infinity this we have to to discuss so this is a proper integral and here we have seen in
this example 1 that year even X power P and P is greater than 1 so that integral converges so naturally this integral
also converges sine x over X we have seen already in example 1 so that means that this integral converges so the
integral 0 to infinity sine x over X DX converges and next we will show that when we take the absolute value over the
integrand that integral does not converge so we have this example which says that the converse is not true
because here we have the convergence of the integral but the integral does not converge absolutely the other way around
this is obvious because if we're taking all the positive values is still we can get this integral so naturally when we
take the mm when the function takes positive and negative values it will certainly converge so here we will show
now that this integral does not converge and this is the bit involved now so we take this absolute value sign x over X
DX and we write down this as a sum of n goes sum of over this n goes from 0 to infinity n pi and n plus 1 pi and sine X
absolute value over X DX so here this integral is is exactly this integral so we have broken here like n is equal to 0
so we are going from 0 to PI and then this integrand and the value then we are going for n is equal to 1 so that means
PI to 2 pi and this integrand and so on so we have taken the 0 2 pi pi to 2 pi and then 2 PI to 3 PI and so on so this
integral 0 to infinity we have broken into several these small segments over the range so 0 2 pi PI to 2 pi 2 pi to 3
PI and so on which we have written in this summation form so this is the integral and now we will make a
substitution here that X is equal to n PI plus y so we make the substitution X is equal to n PI plus y in this integral
so by substituting this so DX will become this dy and then this n PI will be replaced accordingly and n plus 1 PI
as well so when we substitute this in this integral so when the X was taking n PI values the Y will take 0 value so
again to see here because this relation was X is equal to n PI plus 1 so the X was taking the lower value as n PI so n
PI plus y so this Y will take as the value 0 so this goes from 0 now and when X was taking the value and PI plus this
PI so in that case we have this n PI plus y so the Y will take the value PI so our integral is now 0 to PI and this
absolute value sign and this X is n PI plus y so we have n PI plus y and here also we have substituted for X that is n
PI plus y so we will make another use of this inequality a of this equality that Sen
sine n pi plus y sine n pi plus y is equal to -1 power n and sine Y because for example n is 1 so we have sine pi
plus y which is minus sine Y and similarly for other ends so we have this equality the techno Matic equality which
we will use here now in this numerator because we have sine n pi plus y so Y using this we have now in the numerator
minus 1 power N and then we have this sine Y over n pi Y dy the same integral which was here so this sine n PI plus y
is replaced by -1 power n sine Y so now this summation as it is we have 0 to PI and this minus 1 power n because we are
talking about the absolute value so that will be as it is and the sine Y again so here we should note that we have we are
not using now the absolute value because the sine Y is will take positive values from 0 to PI it takes value 0 there and
then at PI by 2 1 and then it gradually goes to 0 so this never takes negative values in 0 to PI therefore we have
removed this absolute value here so divided by sin PI plus y and dy so in this case now this denominator if we
take a look here so Y in this case for this integral is taking zero value through the pi value so if we want to
make this integral larger than some other integral here so we can replace this Y by the larger value or this
denominator will be the taking the largest value here at pi here so we have n pi plus pi so this Y is replaced by
this pi so that this is this integral here becomes a smaller integral for this integral and therefore we have this
equality that this integral is larger because this is taking now the integrand is taking lower value because this
denominator was replaced by the lowest well the highest value here which is pi there so n pi plus pi so this is a
smaller integral and now here this is nothing but because there is no y here so we can take this out so we have n
sorry despite we can take out so we have pi there and the integral also we can evaluate so we have this summation and
go 0 to infinity and 1 over n will remain as it is so we have also this pi here so 1 over pi and this n plus 1 so 1
over pi and n plus 1 or again let me write it down so we have this summation and goes from 0 to infinity and this is
1 over pi and n plus 1 and integral 0 to pi and we have this sine Y dy so this will be minus cos Y and then 0 to PI so
when we substitute pi we will have again minus 1 there so minus minus will be plus and then minus minus will be plus
again so once so we have to value to here so this is replaced by 2 so we have the value 2 over pi and the summation
over 1 over n plus 1 so this integral is equal to this one and this is a well-known series here which is a
divergent series so that means the sum is infinity here so what we have seen that this integral which we have started
with the absolute value this is greater than this sum of this series which is infinity so that means this integral is
a divergent integral because the value of this integral will be larger than the value of this sum which is coming
already to infinity so in that case we have that this improper integral the given integral
this diverges so the conclusion we have the desolate test which says that if we can show this uniform boundedness of
this integral for all be greater than one and G is a monotone decreasing to zero as X approaches to infinity then we
have this product in the integral a to infinity this DX converges and we have also discussed about the absolute
convergence there and we have seen this nice example which does not converge absolutely but it converges if we don't
take this absolute value for the integrand so these are the references used for preparing these lectures and
thank you very much
The Dirichlet test is used to determine convergence of improper integrals of type 1 (over infinite intervals) for products of functions. It is particularly effective when one function has uniformly bounded integrals (like sin x) and the other is monotone decreasing to zero (like 1/x^p).
The test requires: (1) f is integrable on every finite interval [a, B]; (2) the integrals of f are uniformly bounded (|∫ₐᴮ f(x) dx| ≤ C for all B > a); (3) g is monotone on [a, ∞); and (4) lim_{x→∞} g(x) = 0.
Yes, it applies for any p > 0. Here f(x) = sin x has uniformly bounded integrals (|cos1 - cosB| ≤ 2), and g(x) = 1/x^p is monotone decreasing to zero. Therefore the integral converges for all positive p values.
Absolute convergence occurs when ∫|f(x)| dx converges, which automatically implies ∫f(x) dx converges. Conditional convergence occurs when ∫f(x) dx converges but ∫|f(x)| dx diverges. A classic example is ∫₀^∞ (sin x / x) dx, which converges conditionally.
Split the integral into intervals of length π: Σ_{n=0}^∞ ∫_{nπ}^{(n+1)π} |sin x|/x dx. Substituting x = nπ + y gives a lower bound ≥ Σ 1/((n+1)π) · 2 = (2/π) Σ 1/n, which diverges because the harmonic series diverges.
Use the substitution x = -t to transform it into a standard integral from a finite lower limit to ∞. For example, ∫{-∞}^a f(x) dx = -∫{-a}^∞ f(-t) dt, which can then be analyzed using the same convergence tests like the Dirichlet test.
Yes, but split the integral at x = 1. The integral from 0 to 1 is proper (no singularity). For the part from 1 to ∞, apply the Dirichlet test with f(x)=sin x/x and g(x)=e^{-ax}: the integrals of f are uniformly bounded, and g is monotone decreasing to zero, so the integral converges.
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